I’ve answered similar questions in this manner before, but it bears saying again. Let me tell you a couple of things about my (heterosexual) marriage.
1.It used to be illegal.My spouse and I are not the same race, and in our country of origin (the United States), our marriage would’ve been illegal before a Supreme Court decision struck down antimiscegenation laws.
2.It is nonprocreative.I’ve known since I was a young teenager that I cannot have any biological children. My spouse has known this, also, for as long as we’ve been together.
3.It is consensual.By this, I mean that it is not an arranged marriage. We chose each other and jointly decided to establish a legal union and household.
I like being married to my spouse. I appreciate and am grateful for the right to be married to the person of my choosing, and to have that union be legally recognized in my country.
So, ifmyformerlyillegal, nonprocreative, consensual marriage is legally recognized and gives us all kinds of really useful civil and legal protections, why shouldn’tallformerlyillegal, nonprocreative, consensual marriages have the same status? If I’m going to claim those rights for myself, then it would be hypocritical and indefensible for me to oppose granting them to other people whose marriages are functionally identical to mine. This person in a heterosexual marriage supports same sex marriagebecause it is the only right and fair thing to do.
